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Re: Intelligibility of reversed speech, Why?
Well we all have our pet theories, but nobody can prove their favorite.
The other question is "Why should this processing destroy intelligibility?"
Isn't the ear supposed to be phase deaf? Isn't this consistent with
this phase deafness? (this comment is intended to be with tongue in cheek).
I think it boils down to what are the speech cues. The experiment of Bob
Shannon (the noise driven channel vocoder experiment) convinced
a lot of people these speech cues are very primitive.
Yadong Wang wrote:
> Dear Auditory list,
> Saberi & Perrott ("Cognitive restoration of reversed speech," Nature 398:
> 760, 1999)
> recently showed that local time reversal does not destroy intelligibility,
> if the
> time reversal window is brief.
> (Please go to http://www.utdallas.edu/~assmann/TREV/trevdemo.html for the
> Why is that?
> -Yadong Toward a Man-made Brain
> 401-874-5392 (O) Leave Msg Please...
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Jont B. Allen
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