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Re: f0 frequency difference limen
According to [Henning, G. B. and Grosberg, S. L. (1968). "Effect of
harmonic components on frequency discrimination." J. Acoust. Soc. Am.
44: 1386-1389.], for fundamental frequencies below 2 kHz,
discrimination is better for complex than pure tones (above 2 kHz it
is the same).
According to the theory of [Goldstein, J. L. (1973). "An optimum
processor theory for the central formation of the pitch of complex
tones." J. Acoust. Soc. Am. 54: 1496-1516.], F0 discrimination of a
complex is at least as good as that of each of its components.
Both suggest that complex tone limens should be at least as small as
pure tone limens if not better. The classic source for those is
[Moore, B. C. J. (1973). "Frequency difference limens for
short-duration tones." J. Acoust. Soc. Am. 54: 610-619.]. If I
remember correctly, pure tone FDLs are as low as 0.2% at 2kHz.
For a more recent study see [Gockel, H., Moore, B. C. J., Carlyon, R.
P. and Plack, C. J. (2007). "Effect of duration on the frequency
discrimination of individual partials in a complex tone and on the
discrimination of fundamental frequency." J. Acoust. Soc. Am. 121:
373-382.]. They report thresholds as low as 0.2% for partials, 0.1%
for the complex.
Dear members of the list,
Is there a consensus on the size of the frequency difference limen
for the f0 of complex tones such as those
produced by musical instruments - i.e. containing both resolved and
unresolved harmonics. References to papers
describing the precise nature of the tests used would also be helpful.
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