Subject: Re: On the Grammar of Music From: Martin Braun <nombraun(at)POST.NETLINK.SE> Date: Fri, 27 Apr 2001 11:34:45 +0200Odd Torleiv Furnes wrote: "You might like to know that my bookshelf contains several books about the chordal treatments in Bach, Hindemith, Bartok and Oasis to name a few." Reply: Fine. Then you will surely agree that there is so much variation in the chordal treatment within the work of each composer that they were obviously not following any grammar. A grammar of chords could only exist, if there were at least a few chords that had a meaning. Such a meaning would have to be the same for composer and audience. We don't have such things in music. The examples of possible meanings of chords, given by Julian Vrieslander earlier today, clearly show that an agreement on meaning is not possible in this field. Ask ten persons what they think the difference between A-C-E and G#-C#-F is. You'll get ten different answers. And there might not be any correlation whatsoever between the answers. Martin ----- Original Message ----- From: O.T.Furnes <oddtf(at)imt.uio.no> To: <AUDITORY(at)LISTS.MCGILL.CA> Sent: Friday, April 27, 2001 8:21 AM Subject: Re: On the Grammar of Music