Subject: Re: Robust method of fundamental frequency estimation From: Eckard Blumschein <Eckard.Blumschein@xxxxxxxx> Date: Thu, 1 Feb 2007 09:47:20 +0100 List-Archive:<http://lists.mcgill.ca/scripts/wa.exe?LIST=AUDITORY>Zitat von Dan Ellis <dpwe@xxxxxxxx>: > > I've always wondered why playing a bass line on the bottom octaves > > of the piano can almost never serve the same sonic role as playing > > the same bass line on a stand-up (acoustic) bass or electric bass guitar > > (I'm talking about a popular music and jazz context here). > > > I don't know the answer, but I took the FFT of the lowest note of the piano > from the MUMS grand piano samples; it's at: > > http://labrosa.ee.columbia.edu/~dpwe/tmp/mumsPianoA0.jpg Hallo Dan, May I ask you to perform something like cepstrum or autocorrelation with the original data or to perform (after one way rectification) inverse FT or just once again FT and get a much less periodic result? Maybe I was not entirely wrong within http://iesk.et.uni-magdeburg.de/~blumsche/M275.html http://iesk.et.uni-magdeburg.de/~blumsche/M277.html http://iesk.et.uni-magdeburg.de/~blumsche/M283.html My piano generates nearly pure tones. A guitar generates many overtones. Sincerely Yours, Eckard
