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Re: question about overtones
I have proposed in the past that as far as auditory preception is concerned, a pure tone will also create overtones, contrary to analysis by Fourier or any of its many extensions. For, a description of this, please visit my website,
where I have shown the normalized amplitudes for not only a pure tone, but also some other complex waveforms. The basis of the method described is admittedly unorthodox, and I have been thinking about its relationship to autocorrelation, but have not made much progress. The differences by far exceed any commonality, though it is possible that I am too close to the problem. I do have psycho-acoustical experiments to support my approach, but here again, the experiments were designed to specifically to elucidate the structure for the required algorithms.
Any comments or suggestions would be most welcome. Cheers
From: Tom Lee <edgar109@xxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Nov 16, 2005 7:58 PM
Subject: question about overtones
Does anyone have information about the amplitude
relation between a tone and its overtones? What I mean
is, if I have some frequency and I want to generate
its natural overtone series, how loud do I make the
overtones in relation to the fundamental? Thanks in advance!
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