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Re: Robust method of fundamental frequency estimation
Zitat von Dan Ellis <dpwe@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>:
> > I've always wondered why playing a bass line on the bottom octaves
> > of the piano can almost never serve the same sonic role as playing
> > the same bass line on a stand-up (acoustic) bass or electric bass guitar
> > (I'm talking about a popular music and jazz context here).
> I don't know the answer, but I took the FFT of the lowest note of the piano
> from the MUMS grand piano samples; it's at:
May I ask you to perform something like cepstrum or autocorrelation with the
original data or to perform (after one way rectification) inverse FT or just
once again FT and get a much less periodic result?
Maybe I was not entirely wrong within
My piano generates nearly pure tones.
A guitar generates many overtones.