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Re: [AUDITORY] SV: RE: Perceptual basis of evolving western musical styles

Sorry to interrupt again. Would you see any difference in the evolution of western musical style between 1960s and 1980s? or 1900s and 1920s? FM

De : Pablo Hernán Rodriguez Zivic <elsonidoq@xxxxxxxxx>
À : AUDITORY@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Envoyé le : Mardi 4 juin 2013 14h33
Objet : Re: SV: RE: Perceptual basis of evolving western musical styles

Hi David,

Thank you! 
I'm glad that both, Eric has a concern about my analysis, and you don't. Otherwise, there would be no discussion :).

With respect to the selection bias of the corpus, it may be. However, if you look in the Supporting Information, we did a control by projecting another corpus (the Alicante's 9GDB) into the factors, and we found very similar results. However, I don't exactly recall how the projection values where for the 9GDB corpus with respect to the IR principles. 

You are right with respect to the Baroque overshoot. Yet, the end of the Baroque is a very arbitrary date as well, since it's the year of Bach's death. So, it could be the case that for 20 years after Bach died, similar music was still been written (maybe someone who knows more about music history can tell me if this make sense).

Anyway, thanks for your comments!!


On Mon, Jun 3, 2013 at 7:50 AM, David Morris <dmorris@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Hi Pablo,

I don't share Eric's concern about a drawback and found this article definitely worthy of your shameless self-promotion.  Congratulations.  It's perplexing that the closure projection results for the Classical period are so low.  I would have exåected them to be amongst the highest.  Could this relate to selection bias in the corpus, or does it have to do with the definition (as per the Carol and Krumhansl reference which I should probably try and wrap my feeble mind around).  Also, on account of the two deaths that occured, I think that the second year overshoots the end of the Baroque by 20 years, but that doesn't effect your analysis.

All the best