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A reviewer of a recent paper of ours has written the following:
"...I thought it was well established that 10 to 30% of normal subjects
cannot judge which frequency [in a pair of pure tones] is higher or lower
(above chance), while all subjects are generally able to judge if two
frequencies are identical or not."
My question: is this, in fact, well established, as the reviewer claims,
and if so, what might be the reference for this?
Any leads you all can give us would be appreciated
Robert J. Zatorre, Ph.D.
Montreal Neurological Institute
3801 University St.